UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 Analysis Live: General Studies & CSAT Exams Conclude; Check Difficulty Level, Expected Cutoff And Expert Reactions Here

UPSC concludes paper two CSAT. The difficulty level of the CSAT in 2026 remained consistent with that of the CSE 2025 examination.

Question: There are four types of weights, namely 1 kg, 2 kg, 5 kg and 10 kg. What is the maximum number of different ways one can measure 20 kg, if at least eight but not more than eleven weights of 1 kg are to be used while measuring?

(α) 7

(b) 8

(c) 9

(d) 10

Answer: (b) 8

Solution: We need to make 298 litres using the minimum number of measurements with cylinders of 100, 25, 6, 1 litre.

This is a greedy optimisation problem (largest first works best here).,

Step 1: Use 100 L cylinder

298 ÷ 100 = 2 times - 200 L
Remaining = 98 L
Measurements used = 2,

Step 2: Use 25 L cylinder

98 ÷ 25 = 3 times - 75 L
Remaining = 23 L
Measurements used = 3
Total so far = 5,

Step 3: Use 6 L cylinder

23 ÷ 6 = 3 times - 18 L
Remaining = 5 L
Measurements used = 3
Total so far = 8,

Step 4: Use 1 L cylinder

5 ÷ 1 = 5 times - 5 L
Measurements used = 5
Total so far = 13

(d) 13

Correct Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

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Q. Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.

2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.

3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect because drone swarms use standard UHF/VHF and microwave frequencies to connect with command bases, as Terahertz bands suffer from severe atmospheric signal loss over long operational distances.

Statement 2 is correct because the swarm relies on a decentralized peer-to-peer mesh network, allowing individual units to communicate with each other to coordinate movements. Statement 3 is correct because transmitting fake, stronger satellite signals (GPS Spoofing) easily misleads their navigation systems, making it a primary countermeasure.

UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 Analysis LIVE Updates: CSAT Exam Over Now. Stay tuned with us for the latest expert analysis, difficulty level review, and expected cutoff updates for GS and CSAT papers.

CSAT Paper II started at 2:30 PM and has concluded, that is, at 4:30 PM.

CSAT Exam to End in 10 Minutes; Candidates Make Final Revision Push Before Paper Concludes at 4:30 PM

Several Economy questions in UPSC Prelims 2026 reportedly referred to committees such as the Malegam Committee, Malhotra Committee, and Urjit Patel Committee. Experts described the section as above average in difficulty due to its institutional and conceptual depth.

Q. Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.

2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.

3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (B)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The GenomeIndia Project is not a part of the international Human Genome Project (which concluded in 2003). While it takes inspiration from global genomic mapping efforts, it is an independent, indigenous initiative focused specifically on the Indian subcontinent to correct the historical underrepresentation of South Asian populations in global genetic databases.

Statement 2 is correct: The project is a flagship national initiative completely funded and backed by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), under the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.

Statement 3 is correct: Its primary objective is to sequence the whole genomes of over 10,000 healthy individuals across diverse ethnic, linguistic, and socio-cultural groups to build a comprehensive, population-aware catalogue of genetic variations unique to India. This data helps advance precision medicine, disease diagnostics, and pharmacogenomics tailored specifically for Indian demographics.

Key Takeaways From NEXT IAS Expert Analysis:

-According to B. Singh, the UPSC Prelims 2026 paper followed an unconventional pattern with several new-style questions across subjects.

-The GS paper was lengthier than previous years, increasing reading and comprehension pressure on candidates.

-Experts observed that the overall difficulty level was higher compared to UPSC CSE Prelims 2025.

-Some questions focused on situational and ethical decision-making in Public Policy, testing administrative judgment and applied understanding.

-The paper showed greater emphasis on analytical and inference-based questions, while History received comparatively higher weightage this year.

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Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.

2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.

3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.,

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 393 of the Constitution of India explicitly details the title. It states: "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.",

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 395 explicitly addresses the repeals. It states: "The Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act... are hereby repealed.",

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 394 explicitly deals with the commencement date. It states that while certain provisions (like citizenship, elections, etc.) came into force immediately (on November 26, 1949),,

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The UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 CSAT Paper II has begun at 2:30 PM across examination centres and will conclude at 4:30 PM today.

Question: Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:,

Code:

Answer: (b),

Explanation:

Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project is a major India-assisted hydropower project in Bhutan.  A–3

The Stor Palace restoration project was supported by India in the Afghanistan-related heritage cooperation context.  B–2 

District Hospital Dickoya was constructed with Indian assistance in Sri Lanka. C–4 

Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies received Indian support in Maldives. D–1 

Therefore, the correct matching is:

A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 CSAT (Paper II) examination will begin at 2:30 PM and conclude at 4:30 PM. Candidates are advised to reach their examination centres well before the gate closing time at 2:00 PM.

According to Shubhra Ranjan, the UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 GS paper introduced innovative and comprehension-based questions while giving significant weightage to History, International Relations, and conceptual Polity topics.

She noted that the paper emphasized deep understanding over rote learning, encouraging aspirants to rely on standard sources like NCERTs and Bipan Chandra. According to her, the examination rewarded disciplined preparation and genuine conceptual clarity rather than superficial notes and shortcuts.

Question: Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:,

1. World Food Programme
2. United Nations Children's Fund
3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
4. International Labour Organisation

How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Answer: (b) 2

Explanation:
The following UN-related organisations have received the Nobel Peace Prize twice:

-The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1954 and 1981.

-The International Labour Organisation received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 and is also considered among organisations awarded twice in broader UN recognition references used in exam contexts. 

Meanwhile:,

• World Food Programme received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020.The 
• United Nations Children's Fund received it once in 1965.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2, making option (b) correct.

According to Manjunath Thamminidi, Founder of PMF IAS, the UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 GS paper was unusually difficult, lengthy, and unpredictable, with heavy focus on random current affairs. He said the exam sidelined core subjects, increased stress among aspirants, and may result in a lower cut-off this year.

Question: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

 ,

Answer: (d) 33 Corps: Srinagar

Explanation:
Indian Army Corps headquarters are located at different strategic locations across the country.

3 Corps headquarters is located at Dimapur 

4 Corps headquarters is located at Tezpur 

14 Corps headquarters is located at Leh 

33 Corps headquarters is actually located at Sukna near Siliguri in West Bengal, not Srinagar 

Therefore, option (d) is the incorrectly matched pair.

Q. Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

,

1. Belarus
2. Poland
3. Germany
4. Switzerland

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:
European Union currently includes countries such as Poland and Germany as member states.,

• Belarus is not a member of the European Union.
• Switzerland is also not an EU member, though it maintains close economic relations with the bloc.

Therefore, only Poland and Germany are members of the European Union, making option (c) the correct answer.

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Q. Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

 ,

1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
3. Akula Class Submarine

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

-Su-30MKI fighter jets are manufactured in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited under license from Russia.

-T-90 tanks are also produced in India, particularly at the Heavy Vehicles Factory in Avadi under technology transfer arrangements.

-However, Akula-class submarine submarines are Russian nuclear-powered submarines and are not manufactured in India. India has leased some Akula-class submarines from Russia.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making option (a) the right answer.

Q. Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of the cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

,

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
2. IMT Trilateral Highway
3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:
Association of Southeast Asian Nations connectivity initiatives with India include projects aimed at improving trade, transport, and regional integration.

The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project connects India with Myanmar, an ASEAN member country, through sea, river, and road transport. 

The India-Myanmar-Thailand (IMT) Trilateral Highway is a major connectivity project linking India with Myanmar and Thailand, both associated with ASEAN cooperation. 

The Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line is a bilateral rail connectivity project between India and Bangladesh and is not considered an India-ASEAN connectivity initiative in this context. 

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, making option (a) the right answer.

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Question: A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

(a) Green Bond

(b) Social Bond

(c) Sustainability Bond

(d) Sovereign Bond

Answer: (c) Sustainability Bond

Explanation:
Sustainability Bond is a type of bond used to finance or refinance projects that generate both environmental and social benefits.,

• Green Bonds focus only on environmental projects.
• Social Bonds fund projects with social objectives.
• Sustainability Bonds combine both environmental and social purposes.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Students found the UPSC Prelims 2026 paper lengthy and heavily focused on Art & Culture and defence technology. Compared to previous years, fewer questions were asked from Geography and Environment sections in the examination.

According to Rahul Puri, the UPSC Prelims 2026 paper was unusually balanced between conceptual clarity and highly factual questions, making it significantly different from previous years. He advised students not to panic, stating that the difficulty level may lead to a historically low cut-off this year.

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Q. Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent based on the following information:

,

1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
2. It flows through three countries.
3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
4. It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

(a) Brahmaputra

(b) Indus

(c) Sutlej

(d) Teesta

Answer: (b) Indus

Explanation:
Indus River originates from the Tibetan Plateau and flows through China (Tibet), India, and Pakistan. It is one of the most important rivers for irrigation, especially in Pakistan.

The Indus River is also known for its antecedent drainage system, meaning it maintained its course despite geological changes like mountain uplift. Unlike many large rivers, it does not form major distributaries before entering the Arabian Sea.

Therefore, option (b) Indus is the correct answer.

Question: Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):,

1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
Rhynchostylis retusa is a well-known epiphytic orchid, meaning it grows on trees without taking nutrients from them. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the species is not endemic to North-east India. It is also found in countries such as Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, and parts of Southeast Asia.

Statement 3 is also incorrect. The Foxtail Orchid is the state flower of Assam, but not of Arunachal Pradesh.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, making option (a) the right answer.

Q. Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

(a) Ecuador

(b) Peru

(c) Bolivia

(d) Colombia

Answer: (a) Ecuador

Explanation:
Tungurahua Volcano is an active stratovolcano located in Ecuador. It was declared a UNESCO Global Geopark in 2025 for its geological significance, volcanic landscape, and biodiversity.

The volcano is part of the Andes mountain range and is one of Ecuador’s most well-known volcanic sites. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q. Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

,

1. Vitasta : Chenab
2. Asikni : Jhelum
3. Parushni : Ravi
4. Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 3 only

(d) 4 only

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:
Ancient Indian texts mention several rivers by their old Sanskrit names. Their modern equivalents are:,

• Vitasta = Jhelum (not Chenab)
• Asikni = Chenab (not Jhelum)
• Parushni = Ravi 
• Yavyavati is not identified with Beas

Therefore, only pair 3 is correctly matched, making option (c) the correct answer.

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Q. Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a) Nat Bhairavi
(b) Kamavardhini
(c) Hanumatodi
(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Explanation:
Raga Bilawal in Hindustani classical music is equivalent to Dheera Shankarabharanam in Carnatic music. Both ragas are based on the natural major scale and use all seven pure notes (Shuddha Swaras).

The scale pattern is:,

• Sa Re Ga Ma Pa Dha Ni Sa

Dheera Shankarabharanam is one of the most important Melakarta ragas in Carnatic music and is widely used in classical compositions, while Bilawal is a foundational raga in Hindustani music.

Q, Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a) Agra Gharana
(b) Gwalior Gharana
(c) Patiala Gharana
(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Answer: (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Explanation:
Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur was one of the most celebrated Hindustani classical vocalists from Karnataka. He was closely associated with the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana, a renowned school of Hindustani classical music founded by Alladiya Khan.

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UPSC stated that candidates would be able to raise objections against provisional answer keys through the Online Question Paper Representation Portal available on upsconline.nic.in/login. The commission introduced the revised process for the Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026 to improve transparency and maintain examination standards.

Candidates can submit representations within the prescribed timeline announced by the commission following the completion of the examination process.

The General Studies (GS) Paper I of UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026 concluded at 11:30 AM across the country. Over 8.19 lakh candidates appeared for the examination held in offline OMR mode for 933 vacancies. Candidates are now awaiting expert reviews and detailed paper analysis.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 examination will conclude at 11:30 AM in just 10 minutes. Candidates are giving final touches to their answers as the first session nears completion. Stay tuned with us for detailed paper analysis, difficulty level, subject-wise breakup, and expert reactions after the exam end

UPSC CSE selection involves:

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UPSC has directed candidates to maintain silence and discipline. Unfair means or misconduct may lead to cancellation of candidature.

GS Paper I: 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM

CSAT Paper II: 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM

Negative marking applies in both GS Paper I and CSAT Paper II. Avoid random guessing - wrong answers cost marks.

In a major change from previous years, UPSC will release the provisional answer key soon after the Civil Services Prelims examination on May 24. Earlier, candidates had to wait until the entire recruitment cycle concluded and final results were declared, a process that usually took several months.

The UPSC CSE 2026 Prelims General Studies (Paper I) session begins at 9:30 AM and will end at exactly 11:30 AM IST today, May 24, 2026. 

UPSC Chairman Ajay Kumar said the addition of three new centres is part of the Commission’s ongoing efforts to make the examination process more candidate-friendly and efficient. He emphasised that the measures reflect UPSC’s commitment to fairness, transparency, accessibility, and convenience.

The mistakes made in the OMR sheet can cost serious marks even if the answers marked by you are correct. Therefore, the candidates are advised to read the instructions carefully and be cautious while filling in the following details:

-Fill in the roll number carefully

-Mark the booklet series correctly

-Dark circles completely for the answers that are correct, according to you.

-Avoid overwriting or stray marks

-Double-check all entries before submission

-Always verify the booklet code before starting the paper.

The Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) or Paper 2 will be conducted from 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM.

The qualifying paper will test candidates on comprehension, logical reasoning, analytical ability, and quantitative aptitude.

The General Studies Paper 1 of UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 is being held in the first shift from 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM. The paper includes questions from History, Geography, Economy, Polity, Environment, Science and Technology, and Current Affairs.

Negative marking will apply for incorrect answers in both General Studies Paper I and the CSAT Paper II. Candidates are advised to attempt questions carefully and avoid random guessing, as wrong responses will cost marks.

Candidates should wear simple clothes and avoid jewellery, metallic items, or fancy accessories for hassle-free security checks.

Candidates must carry a printed copy of the UPSC CSE 2026 admit card. Entry to the exam hall is not permitted without it.

Candidates were not allowed to enter after gate closing time. UPSC enforced strict entry and verification guidelines.

-Mobile phones, even in switched-off mode, are strictly prohibited inside the examination hall.

-Smartwatches, Bluetooth devices, cameras, pagers, pen drives, and other electronic gadgets are not allowed.

-Candidates can wear only simple wrist watches without communication features.

-Bags, valuables, and costly items are banned inside the venue, and UPSC will not be responsible for any loss of belongings.

The UPSC Prelims strictly follow this schedule:,

• Carry printed admit card and valid photo ID
• Reach centre early for frisking and verification
• Entry after gate closing time will not be allowed
• Only black ballpoint pen is permitted
• Negative marking applicable in both papers